Was the wine that was talked about in the bible really wine or just a form of grape juice? Within all this we have some groups within the Christian faith that say that it was not wine but in fact juice, but could this be so with the facts that we have in the bible from old to New Testament. The place I want to start with this is there any history in the bible that we see that there was use of a fermented grape drink? Do we see this at all in the bible? Well we must go to the New Testament to get a good look at this, note that the verse I am going to use is more or less not used for this type of Prof Texting if you will, but I want to use it as a history prof, and not a doctrinal one.
(“Mat 9:14-19 Then the disciples of John came to him, saying, "Why do we and the Pharisees fast, but your disciples do not fast?" And Jesus said to them, "Can the wedding guests mourn as long as the bridegroom is with them? The days will come when the bridegroom is taken away from them, and then they will fast. No one puts a piece of unshrunk cloth on an old garment, for the patch tears away from the garment, and a worse tear is made. Neither is new wine put into old wineskins. If it is, the skins burst and the wine is spilled and the skins are destroyed. But new wine is put into fresh wineskins, and so both are preserved.")
Now what is this showing us? Well if we know anything about the making of wine, then we would know that we need to the sinks for the wine to be new and ones that would let the wine as the gas from the grapes fermenting to expanded, but with the old sinks they would have no room to do this, and would just brake them and the wine would then be no good. But what does this have to do with the bible talking about wine; does this mean anything for the debate of wine or juice? Well to a point it plays a small part in it, from the point of history it shows that we have win in the bible, but does it mean that Christ and his disciples take part in the wine that was being used then in that time? Do we see at all were, there could be wine used in the new or old testament.
We have seen that Noah got drunk on his own grapes, in the book of Genesis, we see this in
(“Gen 9:20-21 Noah began to be a man of the soil, and he planted a vineyard. He drank of the wine and became drunk and lay uncovered in his tent.”)
So in the old testament, we see that noah was getting drunk, but does that mean the wine in its self was a sin? Well, if this act was a sin the wine with in its own, I don’t think that Christ(God) would have
(“Joh 2:1-11 On the third day there was a wedding at Cana in Galilee, and the mother of Jesus was there. Jesus also was invited to the wedding with his disciples. When the wine ran out, the mother of Jesus said to him, "They have no wine." And Jesus said to her, "Woman, what does this have to do with me? My hour has not yet come." His mother said to the servants, "Do whatever he tells you." Now there were six stone water jars there for the Jewish rites of purification, each holding twenty or thirty gallons. Jesus said to the servants, "Fill the jars with water." And they filled them up to the brim. And he said to them, "Now draw some out and take it to the master of the feast." So they took it. When the master of the feast tasted the water now become wine, and did not know where it came from (though the servants who had drawn the water knew), the master of the feast called the bridegroom and said to him, "Everyone serves the good wine first, and when people have drunk freely, then the poor wine. But you have kept the good wine until now." This, the first of his signs, Jesus did at Cana in Galilee, and manifested his glory. And his disciples believed in him.”)
If this at the time was a sin would he in fact have turned this in to wine? Is this the thing that if it was a sin that God would not have done in the wedding? This is not something that we see in the scripture; we do not see the Christ doing this in the bible at all but in fact he is coming to do the will of the father and the father is one that does not change. The God that we as Christian follow is one that does not change, so we can’t say that he would be agents’ drinking, because he himself had wine, we see that he did this in the lords super
(“1Co 11:25 In the same way also he took the cup, after supper, saying, "This cup is the new covenant in my blood. Do this, as often as you drink it, in remembrance of me.")
Now, we see that Christ is telling his follows to drink of the cup (wine) so he is not ageist the drinking but the drunkards’ as we see in proverbs
(“Pro 20:1 Wine is a mocker, strong drink a brawler, and whoever is led astray by it is not wise.”)
So does this mean we can’t drink? Well let’s see are there verse to say to drink of the wine? Well in 1 timothy says this
(“1Ti 5:23 (No longer drink only water, but use a little wine for the sake of your stomach and your frequent ailments.)”)
So we see that we can drink of the wine but we can’t get wasted on it, but yet does this give use any room for those who are easy to get drunk, by the wine, what do we do in this do we drink in front of them?
(“Rom 14:21 It is good not to eat meat or drink wine or do anything that causes your brother to stumble.”)
So we shall not be drinking in the face of one who is to be easy to drink too much.
So with all this I could go more in to this but I think that at this time we have a good view of what the word of God has told us about drinking, that it is not a sin to drink but to get drunk.
May God bless this work to you and to all who read it
Soli deo Gloria!
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